Cause effect relation

Before and after is there because effect follows after cause.
This is our understanding. But is it correct? If it is so can we prove it is so?

When we open the tap the water flows, when we step on dogs tail it will bark, when we exert a force on an object it will move etc.(But in some special cases the result may not happen).

Try to remove the human involvement and see whether the effect follows cause.

First of all how do we know that a certain effect follows the cause. It is our experience.  So will an object move when a force is exerted even when we are not observing?

We think that two events are enough to see the cause and effect. It is not so, we observe a train of events to observe cause and effect. With two events there will be a probability that a certain effect will follow cause. With a train of events this probability increases. Therefore there is a lesser probability that event one cause event two. But event ten happening after event one is more probable. When the train grows the probability increases. (This is similar to the confirmation of a transaction in a blockchain)

Suppose an observer watches an moving object, we can't think movement stops when observer is not looking, because when the observer looks back the object is still moving. But it may not be the case of no observer has looked at the moving object and there is a possibility no-one will ever look at it.

"Wheeler delayed choice gedanken Experiment, if we look for waves we get waves, if we look for particles we get particles. Even if the choice to look is made after the particles/wave leave the source the is true. The effect is before the cause. Weirdness in quantum mechanics"

The concept of time is a hypothesis. It is true as long as all effects I.e.each individual element of the set off all effects follows it's causes. When we find at least one instance where it is violated, the hypothesis is wrong.